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The Indian Arms Act (Paper - 4) | MCQs English Medium
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Indian Arms Act One Liner Notes
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1. Liability under Section 35 arises when the premises, vehicle or place is under:
a. Exclusive control of one person
b. Government control
c. Joint occupation or joint control of several persons
d. Temporary custody
2. For a person to be held liable under Section 35, there must be reason to believe that he:
a. Owned the arms or ammunition
b. Had a licence
c. Was aware of the existence of arms or ammunition
d. Used the arms
3. Mere joint occupation is sufficient to attract liability under Section 35 only when:
a. Arms are licensed
b. Arms are prohibited
c. Awareness of the existence of arms or ammunition is established
d. Arms are used
4. The phrase “unless the contrary is proved” in Section 35 indicates:
a. Absolute liability
b. Strict liability
c. A rebuttable presumption
d. Vicarious liability
5. The burden of proving lack of knowledge under Section 35 lies on:
a. Prosecution
b. Investigating officer
c. State Government
d. The accused person
6. Section 35 creates a legal presumption that each person aware of the arms:
a. Is guilty only if he used them
b. Is guilty jointly with others
c. Is liable as if the offence were committed by him alone
d. Is liable only for abetment
7. Section 36 of the Arms Act imposes a duty to:
a. Prevent offences
b. Investigate offences
c. Give information regarding offences
d. Sanction prosecution
8. Under Section 36(1), the obligation to give information applies to:
a. Police officers only
b. Magistrates only
c. Every person aware of the commission of any offence under the Act
d. Licensed arms holders only
9. Information under Section 36(1) must be given to:
a. District Magistrate only
b. Superintendent of Police
c. Officer in charge of the nearest police station or the magistrate having jurisdiction
d. Any public servant
10. Failure to give information under Section 36(1) is excusable only when:
a. The offence is minor
b. The person is not an eyewitness
c. There is a reasonable excuse
d. Arms are licensed
11. The burden of proving “reasonable excuse” under Section 36(1) lies on:
a. Prosecution
b. Police
c. Magistrate
d. The person who failed to give information
12. Section 36(1) creates a:
a. Discretionary duty
b. Moral obligation
c. Statutory legal duty
d. Administrative guideline
13. Section 36(2) specifically applies to persons:
a. Residing near borders
b. Transporting arms
c. Employed or working upon any railway, aircraft, vessel, vehicle or other means of conveyance
d. Holding arms licences
14. Under Section 36(2), the duty arises when a person has reason to suspect that:
a. A passenger is armed
b. A licence is fake
c. A box, package or bale contains arms or ammunition
d. A crime may occur
15. The suspicion under Section 36(2) must relate to:
a. Any illegal goods
b. Explosives only
c. Arms or ammunition connected with an offence under the Act
d. Prohibited arms only
16. The suspected box, package or bale under Section 36(2) must be:
a. Stored
b. Imported
c. In transit
d. Seized
17. Information under Section 36(2) must be given to:
a. Customs officer
b. Railway protection force
c. Magistrate only
d. Officer in charge of the nearest police station
18. Similar to Section 36(1), Section 36(2) also places the burden of proving reasonable excuse on:
a. Employer
b. Police
c. State
d. The person employed or working on the conveyance
19. Section 37 of the Arms Act primarily deals with:
a. Powers of confiscation
b. Punishment for offences
c. Procedure for arrests and searches
d. Licensing of arms
20. Section 37 begins with the phrase “Save as otherwise provided in this Act”, which means:
a. This section overrides the entire Act
b. This section applies unless a specific provision provides otherwise
c. This section applies only in emergencies
d. This section is optional
21. Under Section 37(a), arrests and searches under the Arms Act shall be carried out in accordance with:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Evidence Act, 1872
c. Police Act, 1861
d. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
22. Section 37(a) adopts which legal technique?
a. Incorporation by reference
b. Delegated legislation
c. Substantive penalization
d. Procedural assimilation
23. Arrests under the Arms Act must follow the CrPC provisions relating to:
a. Investigation only
b. Trial only
c. Arrests made under the Code
d. Bail only
24. Searches under the Arms Act must follow the CrPC provisions relating to:
a. Confession
b. Charge framing
c. Searches made under the Code
d. Evidence appreciation
25. Section 37(b) applies when an arrest or seizure is made by:
a. A magistrate
b. A police officer
c. A person other than a magistrate or a police officer
d. A customs officer only
26. A person arrested under the Arms Act by a non-police, non-magistrate must be delivered:
a. To the District Magistrate
b. To the nearest court
c. Without delay to the officer in charge of the nearest police station
d. To the licensing authority
27. Arms or ammunition seized by a person other than a magistrate or police officer must be delivered:
a. After investigation
b. At convenience
c. Without delay to the officer in charge of the nearest police station
d. To the State Government
28. After receiving the arrested person and seized items, the officer in charge of the police station may:
a. Detain the person indefinitely
b. Release the person unconditionally
c. Release the person on execution of bond
d. Confiscate the arms immediately
29. The bond executed under Section 37(b)(i) is for appearance before:
a. Police officer
b. Licensing authority
c. Sessions Court
d. A magistrate
30. While releasing the person on bond, the officer in charge shall:
a. Return the seized arms
b. Destroy the seized arms
c. Keep the seized arms or ammunition in his custody
d. Transfer them to the army
31. Custody of seized arms continues till:
a. Filing of charge-sheet
b. Completion of trial
c. Appearance of the arrested person before the magistrate
d. Grant of bail
32. If the arrested person fails to execute the bond or furnish sufficient sureties, the officer shall:
a. Release him on warning
b. Detain him at the police station
c. Produce the person and seized items before the magistrate without delay
d. Hand him over to the army
33. The phrase “without delay” under Section 37(b) indicates:
a. Within 24 hours only
b. At the convenience of police
c. Immediate and prompt compliance without unnecessary delay
d. Within seven days
34. Section 37 ensures compliance with which constitutional safeguard?
a. Article 14
b. Article 19
c. Article 21 (procedure established by law)
d. Article 32
35. Which of the following best describes Section 37?
a. Substantive penal provision
b. Licensing provision
c. Procedural safeguard provision
d. Confiscatory provision
36. Section 37 prevents arbitrary arrests by:
a. Limiting police power
b. Giving power to civilians
c. Mandating CrPC procedure for arrests and searches
d. Removing magistrate oversight
37. The role of the officer in charge under Section 37(b) is:
a. Ministerial only
b. Judicial
c. Quasi-judicial and procedural
d. Administrative only
38. Section 38 of the Arms Act declares that:
a. Certain offences are cognizable
b. Only serious offences are cognizable
c. Every offence under the Act is cognizable
d. Cognizability depends on punishment
39. The term “cognizable” in Section 38 has the meaning assigned to it under:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1862
b. Evidence Act, 1872
c. Police Act, 1860
d. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
40. Section 39 mandates previous sanction for prosecution in respect of offences under:
a. Any offence under the Arms Act
b. Sections 3 to 7
c. Sections 25 and 26
d. Section 3 only
41. Under Section 39, no prosecution shall be instituted without the previous sanction of:
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. Sessions Court
d. District Magistrate
42. The requirement of sanction under Section 39 applies to:
a. Arrest
b. Search and seizure
c. Investigation
d. Institution of prosecution
43. Section 39 acts as a:
a. Punitive provision
b. Procedural safeguard
c. Substantive offence
d. Evidentiary rule
44. Section 40 provides protection against which of the following?
a. Arrest only
b. Civil liability only
c. Criminal liability only
d. Suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding
45. Protection under Section 40 is available to:
a. Only public servants
b. Only police officers
c. Only licensing authorities
d. Any person
46. The protection under Section 40 applies when the act is:
a. Lawful
b. Necessary
c. Reasonable
d. Done or intended to be done in good faith
47. Which of the following is NOT a condition for protection under Section 40?
a. Act must be under the Arms Act
b. Act must be done in good faith
c. Act must be intended to be done under the Act
d. Act must result in no injury
48. The phrase “anything which is in good faith done or intended to be done” indicates that:
a. Only completed acts are protected
b. Only lawful acts are protected
c. Even intended acts are protected if in good faith
d. Only acts causing no harm are protected
49. The power under Section 41 is vested in:
a. State Government
b. District Magistrate
c. Licensing Authority
d. Central Government
50. The Central Government may exercise its power under Section 41 when it is of the opinion that it is:
a. Convenient
b. Necessary
c. Expedient
d. Necessary or expedient in the public interest
51. The power under Section 41 can be exercised by issuing:
a. Circular
b. Order
c. Rule
d. Notification in the Official Gazette
52. An exemption granted under Section 41 must be:
a. Absolute
b. Permanent
c. Judicially approved
d. Subject to conditions, if any, specified in the notification
53. Under clause (a) of Section 41, the Central Government may exempt:
a. Only individuals
b. Only organisations
c. Only armed forces
d. Any person or class of persons
54. The exemption of a person or class of persons under Section 41 may be:
a. Temporary only
b. Conditional only
c. Area-specific only
d. General or in relation to specified arms or ammunition
55. Apart from exempting persons, the Central Government may also under Section 41:
a. Exempt offences
b. Exempt punishments
c. Exclude any description of arms or ammunition
d. Exclude criminal liability
56. Section 41 also empowers the Central Government to:
a. Exempt courts from jurisdiction
b. Exempt police officers
c. Withdraw any part of India from the operation of the Act
d. Suspend the Constitution
57. Withdrawal of any part of India under Section 41 means:
a. Complete repeal of the Act
b. Suspension of the Act permanently
c. Non-application of all or any provisions of the Act to that area
d. Emergency powers under Article 352
58. The exemption or withdrawal under Section 41 can apply to:
a. Only the whole Act
b. Only one section
c. Only penal provisions
d. All or any of the provisions of the Act
59. Clause (b) of Section 41 empowers the Central Government to:
a. Modify the Act
b. Amend the Act
c. Cancel any exemption notification
d. Review judicial orders
60. The words “as often as may be” in clause (b) signify that the power to cancel exemptions:
a. Can be exercised only once
b. Can be exercised only periodically
c. Can be exercised multiple times whenever necessary
d. Requires legislative approval
61. After cancelling an exemption notification, the Central Government may:
a. Leave the matter open
b. Refer it to Parliament
c. Issue rules
d. Again subject the exempted entity to the Act by a like notification
62. The phrase “by a like notification” means:
a. By the same notification
b. By executive order
c. By another notification in the Official Gazette
d. By judicial direction
63. Which of the following is NOT covered under Section 41?
a. Exempting a class of persons
b. Excluding a description of arms
c. Withdrawing a part of India
d. Granting individual licences
64. The power under Section 41 is best described as:
a. Judicial power
b. Quasi-judicial power
c. Administrative power
d. Discretionary statutory power based on public interest
65. Section 41 operates as an exception to:
a. The Constitution
b. The CrPC
c. The general application of the Arms Act
d. Judicial review
66. An exemption under Section 41 can be conditional, meaning:
a. Conditions are mandatory
b. Conditions must always be imposed
c. Conditions must be approved by courts
d. Conditions may or may not be imposed at the discretion of the Government
67. If an exemption notification is cancelled, the legal position becomes:
a. Status quo ante under criminal law
b. Automatic repeal of the Act
c. Re-application of the Arms Act provisions specified
d. Discretion of local authorities
68. Which principle primarily guides the exercise of power under Section 41?
a. Federal supremacy
b. Judicial restraint
c. Executive necessity
d. Public interest
69. Section 41 confers power that is:
a. Mandatory
b. Mechanical
c. Enabling and discretionary
d. Penal
70. The power to exempt under Section 41 includes the power to:
a. Suspend courts
b. Create offences
c. Modify the extent of application of the Act
d. Alter punishments
71. The power to direct a census of firearms under Section 42 vests in:
a. State Government
b. District Magistrate
c. Police Commissioner
d. Central Government
72. The Central Government may direct a census of firearms by issuing:
a. Executive order
b. Circular
c. Rule
d. Notification in the Official Gazette
73. The census under Section 42 can be directed in:
a. The whole of India only
b. A State only
c. A district only
d. Any area
74. The object of Section 42 is to take a census of:
a. All arms
b. All ammunition
c. All weapons
d. All firearms
75. Along with directing a census, the Central Government may also:
a. Appoint magistrates
b. Authorise police stations
c. Empower any officer of Government to take such census
d. Delegate powers to courts
76. The officer empowered to take the census must be:
a. A police officer only
b. A magistrate only
c. A gazetted officer only
d. Any officer of Government
77. Sub-section (2) of Section 42 comes into operation:
a. Automatically
b. On police direction
c. On the issue of a notification under sub-section (1)
d. On seizure of firearms
78. After issuance of a census notification, the obligation of persons having firearms is:
a. Optional
b. Conditional
c. Discretionary
d. Mandatory
79. Who is bound to comply with Section 42(2)?
a. Only licence holders
b. Only dealers
c. Only residents
d. All persons having firearms in their possession in that area
80. The duty imposed on such persons is to:
a. Surrender firearms
b. Deposit firearms
c. Register firearms
d. Furnish information as required by the officer
81. The information to be furnished under Section 42(2) must relate to:
a. Criminal antecedents
b. Ammunition stock
c. The firearm in possession
d. Licensing authority
82. The extent of information to be furnished is determined by:
a. The Act
b. The Rules
c. The person concerned
d. The requirement of the officer concerned
83. Apart from furnishing information, a person may also be required to:
a. Deposit the firearm
b. Sell the firearm
c. Renew the licence
d. Produce the firearm before the officer
84. Production of firearms under Section 42(2) is:
a. Automatic
b. Mandatory in all cases
c. Prohibited
d. Required only if the officer so requires
85. Section 42 authorises:
a. Confiscation of firearms
b. Seizure of firearms
c. Search of premises
d. Census and collection of information only
86. The power under Section 42 is primarily:
a. Punitive
b. Preventive detention
c. Investigative
d. Regulatory and informational
87. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. Census can be taken without notification
b. Only licensed firearms are covered
c. Firearms must always be produced
d. Information must be furnished once notification is issued
88. The word “may” in Section 42(1) indicates that the power to direct a census is:
a. Mandatory
b. Compulsory
c. Automatic
d. Discretionary
89. The word “shall” in Section 42(2) signifies that compliance by firearm holders is:
a. Optional
b. Advisory
c. Directory
d. Mandatory
90. Failure to furnish information under Section 42(2) would amount to:
a. No offence
b. Civil liability
c. Constitutional violation
d. Contravention of the Arms Act
91. Section 42 applies to possession of firearms:
a. Only lawful possession
b. Only unlawful possession
c. Only licensed possession
d. Irrespective of the nature of possession
92. The census under Section 42 is meant to:
a. Replace licensing
b. Substitute registration
c. Aid prosecution
d. Enable the Government to assess firearm prevalence
93. Section 42 does NOT empower the officer to:
a. Ask for information
b. Require production of firearm
c. Conduct census
d. Confiscate firearms
94. Section 42 is best described as a provision relating to:
a. Criminal trial
b. Penal consequences
c. Preventive detention
d. Administrative control and data collection
95. Section 42 strengthens which objective of the Arms Act?
a. Punishment
b. Revenue generation
c. Judicial efficiency
d. Public safety and regulatory oversight
96. The power to delegate under Section 43 vests in the:
a. State Government
b. District Magistrate
c. Parliament
d. Central Government
97. Delegation under Section 43 can be done only through:
a. Circular
b. Executive order
c. Rule
d. Notification in the Official Gazette
98. Under Section 43(1), the Central Government may delegate:
a. Only functions
b. Only powers
c. Only duties
d. Any power or function exercisable or performable under the Act
99. Which of the following powers CANNOT be delegated under Section 43?
a. Power under Section 24
b. Power under Section 42
c. Power under Section 41
d. Power under Section 30
100. Apart from Section 41, which other power is expressly excluded from delegation?
a. Section 42
b. Section 39
c. Section 40
d. Section 44
101. Delegation under Section 43(1) may be exercised:
a. Absolutely
b. Without limitations
c. Retrospectively
d. In relation to such matters and subject to such conditions as specified
102. The authority to whom powers may be delegated under clause (a) must be:
a. Independent authority
b. Judicial authority
c. Local authority
d. Officer or authority subordinate to the Central Government
103. Under clause (b), delegation may be made to:
a. Only the State Government
b. Only State police authorities
c. Only District Magistrate
d. State Government or officer/authority subordinate to it
104. Delegation to the State Government under Section 43 requires:
a. Consent of the State Government
b. Approval of Parliament
c. Recommendation of High Court
d. Specification in the notification
105. Section 43(1) uses the expression “may”, which indicates that delegation is:
a. Mandatory
b. Automatic
c. Compulsory
d. Discretionary
106. The delegation under Section 43 is:
a. Permanent
b. Irrevocable
c. Judicial
d. Conditional and limited by notification
107. Which of the following is TRUE regarding Section 43(1)?
a. All powers under the Act can be delegated
b. Delegation can be oral
c. Certain powers are expressly excluded from delegation
d. Delegation must always be to State Governments
108. Section 43(2) deals with:
a. Delegation by Parliament
b. Delegation by State Governments
c. Effect of rules made by the Central Government
d. Emergency powers
109. Rules made by the Central Government under the Act may:
a. Override the Act
b. Amend the Act
c. Confer powers or impose duties
d. Create new offences
110. Under Section 43(2), powers may be conferred or duties imposed upon:
a. Only Central officers
b. Only State officers
c. Only courts
d. State Government or officers/authorities subordinate thereto
111. Section 43(2) enables delegation through:
a. Notification only
b. Ordinance
c. Executive instruction
d. Rules framed under the Act
112. Which of the following best describes Section 43 as a whole?
a. Penal provision
b. Procedural safeguard
c. Investigative power
d. Administrative delegation provision
113. Delegation under Section 43 does NOT require:
a. Notification
b. Specification of authority
c. Specification of conditions
d. Judicial approval
114. The exclusion of Sections 41 and 44 from delegation indicates:
a. Legislative oversight
b. Judicial supremacy
c. Legislative intent to retain core powers with Central Government
d. Federal compulsion
115. Section 43 strengthens which principle of governance under the Arms Act?
a. Separation of powers
b. Natural justice
c. Criminal liability
d. Decentralised administrative implementation
116. Delegation under Section 43 can be made to authorities that are:
a. Independent of government
b. Private entities
c. Judicial bodies
d. Subordinate to Central or State Government
117. Section 43 ensures flexibility in administration by allowing:
a. Judicial discretion
b. Legislative amendment
c. Police autonomy
d. Distribution of powers without amending the Act
118. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. Delegated powers override Central Government powers
b. Delegation is automatic upon enactment
c. Delegation is limited, conditional, and expressly controlled
d. Delegation includes power under Section 41
119. The phrase “may be exercised or performed also by” implies that:
a. Central Government loses the power
b. Power is transferred permanently
c. Power is suspended
d. Power is shared concurrently
120. Section 43 primarily operates in the domain of:
a. Criminal prosecution
b. Evidence law
c. Judicial procedure
d. Administrative law under a special statute
121. The power to make rules under Section 44 is vested in the:
a. State Government
b. Parliament
c. Licensing Authority
d. Central Government
122. Rules under Section 44 can be made only by:
a. Executive order
b. Circular
c. Ordinance
d. Notification in the Official Gazette
123. Section 44(1) empowers the Central Government to make rules for:
a. Creating new offences
b. Increasing punishments
c. Amending the Act
d. Carrying out the purposes of the Act
124. The rule-making power under Section 44(2) is:
a. Exhaustive
b. Restrictive
c. Mandatory
d. Illustrative and non-exhaustive
125. The phrase “in particular, and without prejudice to the generality” indicates that:
a. Only listed matters can be regulated
b. The general power is curtailed
c. Listed clauses do not limit the general power
d. Rules can override the Act
126. Which of the following matters can be regulated by rules under clause (a)?
a. Judicial appointments
b. Police powers
c. Appointment and jurisdiction of licensing authorities
d. Confiscation proceedings
127. Clause (a) also allows rules regarding:
a. Criminal liability of licensees
b. Areas and categories of arms and ammunition for licences
c. Appeals against convictions
d. Powers of magistrates
128. Rules relating to the form and particulars of licence applications fall under:
a. Clause (a)
b. Clause (b)
c. Clause (c)
d. Clause (e)
129. Rules governing grant, refusal, renewal, variation, suspension or revocation of licences fall under:
a. Clause (b)
b. Clause (c)
c. Clause (d)
d. Clause (i)
130. If the Act does not specify the duration of a licence, rules may prescribe it under:
a. Clause (c)
b. Clause (e)
c. Clause (d)
d. Clause (m)
131. Fees relating to licences and their manner of payment are governed by:
a. Clause (d)
b. Clause (e)
c. Clause (i)
d. Clause (j)
132. Clause (f) deals with:
a. Import of firearms
b. Proof testing
c. Identification marks for tracing firearms or ammunition
d. Appeal procedure
133. The term “tracing” under the Explanation to clause (f) refers to:
a. Ballistic examination
b. Police investigation
c. Systematic tracking from manufacturer to purchaser
d. Recovery of stolen arms
134. The purpose of “tracing” is to detect and analyse:
a. Lawful trade
b. Export procedures
c. Manufacturing defects
d. Illicit manufacturing and illicit trafficking
135. Rules regarding the test or proof of firearms fall under:
a. Clause (f)
b. Clause (g)
c. Clause (h)
d. Clause (k)
136. Training-related rules—such as firearms used, age-limits, and conditions—are covered under:
a. Clause (g)
b. Clause (h)
c. Clause (j)
d. Clause (l)
137. Appeals under Section 18—including procedure, limitation, fees, and refund—are governed by:
a. Clause (c)
b. Clause (e)
c. Clause (i)
d. Clause (m)
138. Maintenance and exhibition of records (other than licences under Sections 3 and 4) are covered by
a. Clause (i)
b. Clause (j)
c. Clause (k)
d. Clause (l)
139. Entry and inspection of premises where arms are manufactured or stored is governed by:
a. Clause (j)
b. Clause (k)
c. Clause (l)
d. Clause (m)
140. Rules regarding deposit of arms under Section 21 and forfeiture upon expiry fall under:
a. Clause (h)
b. Clause (j)
c. Clause (l)
d. Clause (m)
141. Clause (m) acts as:
a. Penal clause
b. Restrictive clause
c. Procedural safeguard
d. Residual / omnibus rule-making clause
142. Which of the following is TRUE regarding Section 44?
a. Rules can override statutory provisions
b. Rules can prescribe punishments
c. Rules must be consistent with the Act
d. Rules require parliamentary approval before notification
143. Section 44 primarily represents which type of power?
a. Judicial
b. Quasi-judicial
c. Legislative by Parliament
d. Delegated (subordinate) legislation
144. The Central Government’s rule-making power under Section 44 is:
a. Absolute
b. Judicially immune
c. Unlimited
d. Subject to the purposes and framework of the Act
145. Which of the following cannot be done through rules under Section 44?
a. Regulating licence forms
b. Prescribing fees
c. Providing inspection procedures
d. Creating new offences or penalties
146. Section 44 read with Section 43 shows that:
a. Rule-making power is delegable
b. Delegation power is non-delegable
c. Rule-making power itself cannot be delegated
d. Rules can be made by State Governments independently
147. Section 44 ensures:
a. Criminalisation
b. Judicial supervision
c. Police autonomy
d. Administrative flexibility without amending the Act
148. Section 44 is best characterised as:
a. Penal provision
b. Investigative provision
c. Procedural safeguard
d. Enabling provision for subordinate legislation
149. Rules under Section 44 must be published in:
a. Local Gazette
b. Police Manual
c. State Gazette
d. Official Gazette
150. The overall objective of Section 44 is to:
a. Expand criminal liability
b. Centralise prosecution
c. Strengthen punishments
d. Operationalise the Act through detailed regulatory framework
151. Every rule made under Section 44 must be laid before:
a. State Legislature
b. High Court
c. Standing Committee
d. Each House of Parliament
152. Rules made under Section 44 must be laid before Parliament:
a. Before they come into force
b. After judicial approval
c. As soon as may be after they are made
d. Only on demand
153. The total period for which the rule must be laid before Parliament is:
a. Fifteen days
b. Twenty-one days
c. Thirty days
d. Sixty days
154. The thirty-day period for laying rules may be comprised in:
a. Only one session
b. Only two sessions
c. Only successive sessions
d. One session or two or more successive sessions
155. Parliamentary control over rules under Section 44 becomes operative:
a. During the first session itself
b. Before the expiry of the session immediately following the session(s) in which the rule is laid
c. Only after one year
d. Immediately on laying
156. If both Houses of Parliament agree to modify a rule, the rule shall thereafter:
a. Be void ab initio
b. Continue unchanged
c. Have effect only in the modified form
d. Require re-notification
157. If both Houses agree that a rule should not be made, the rule shall:
a. Remain enforceable
b. Be suspended temporarily
c. Require Presidential assent
d. Be of no effect
158. Parliamentary modification or annulment of a rule affects:
a. Past actions
b. Pending prosecutions
c. Only future operation of the rule
d. Judicial decisions
159. The phrase “without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done” means:
a. Past actions become illegal
b. Pending cases abate
c. Acts done under the rule before modification/annulment remain valid
d. The rule revives automatically
160. Section 44(3) represents which form of legislative control?
a. Executive control
b. Judicial review
c. Parliamentary (laying) control over delegated legislation
d. Federal control
161. The procedure under Section 44(3) is an example of:
a. Negative resolution
b. Absolute veto
c. Modified negative laying procedure
d. Prior approval procedure
162. Which of the following is TRUE regarding rules under Section 44?
a. They lapse automatically after 30 days
b. They require prior parliamentary approval
c. They remain valid unless modified or annulled by Parliament
d. They override the Act
163. The laying requirement under Section 44(3) ensures:
a. Judicial accountability
b. Federal balance
c. Administrative secrecy
d. Democratic oversight over delegated legislation
164. Failure to lay the rules before Parliament would primarily affect:
a. Constitutionality of the Act
b. Jurisdiction of courts
c. Validity of the rules
d. Police powers
165. Section 44(3) strikes a balance between:
a. Police and judiciary
b. Centre and States
c. Legislature and judiciary
d. Executive flexibility and parliamentary control
166. The rule-making power under Section 44 becomes complete only after:
a. Gazette publication
b. Judicial confirmation
c. Compliance with laying procedure under sub-section (3)
d. State concurrence
167. Section 44(3) is most relevant while testing:
a. Mens rea
b. Burden of proof
c. Search and seizure
d. Validity of delegated legislation
168. Section 45 of the Arms Act deals with:
a. Licensing of arms
b. Penalties for offences
c. Cases where the Act does not apply
d. Power of search and seizure
169. The effect of Section 45 is that:
a. The Act applies with relaxed conditions
b. The Act applies partially
c. The Act does not apply at all to specified cases
d. Only penalties are excluded
170. The Arms Act does NOT apply to arms or ammunition on board:
a. Any motor vehicle
b. Any railway train
c. Sea-going vessel or aircraft
d. Any public transport
171. For exemption under Section 45(a), arms or ammunition must:
a. Be licensed
b. Be declared to customs
c. Form part of the ordinary armament or equipment
d. Be sealed
172. Arms carried by passengers on an aircraft are exempt under Section 45(a):
a. Always
b. If licensed
c. Only if forming part of the aircraft’s ordinary armament
d. Never
173. The phrase “ordinary armament or equipment” implies:
a. Personal weapons of crew
b. Emergency weapons only
c. Standard weapons necessary for operation/safety of vessel or aircraft
d. Decorative weapons
174. Clause (b) of Section 45 primarily grants exemption based on:
a. Place
b. Weapon type
c. Person and authority
d. Duration
175. Which of the following activities are covered under Section 45(b)?
a. Only possession
b. Only acquisition
c. Only sale and transfer
d. All stages from acquisition to transport
176. Arms-related acts done by or under orders of the Central Government are:
a. Regulated strictly
b. Conditionally exempt
c. Completely exempt from the Act
d. Subject to State approval
177. A public servant is exempt under Section 45(b)(ii) only when acts are done:
a. In personal capacity
b. With licence
c. After office hours
d. In the course of official duty
178. A police officer using a firearm while off-duty for personal reasons:
a. Is exempt
b. Is partially exempt
c. Is NOT covered under Section 45(b)
d. Is protected under Section 40
179. Which Act governs the National Cadet Corps referred to in Section 45?
a. Arms Act, 1959
b. CrPC, 1973
c. National Cadet Corps Act, 1948
d. Defence of India Act, 1915
180. Members of NCC are exempt under Section 45 only when:
a. Enrolled as cadets
b. Wearing uniform
c. Acting in the course of their duty
d. Carrying licensed arms
181. Territorial Army personnel are governed by which statute mentioned in Section 45?
a. Army Act, 1950
b. Defence Services Act
c. Territorial Army Act, 1948
d. Arms Rules, 2016
182. Section 45(b)(iii) also applies to:
a. Only Army and Navy
b. Only police forces
c. Any forces raised and maintained under a Central Act
d. State armed police
183. Forces not created by statute can still be exempt if:
a. Licensed
b. Registered
c. Notified by the Central Government
d. Approved by State Government
184. Clause (c) exempts weapons which are:
a. Outdated but functional
b. Damaged temporarily
c. Obsolete or antiquarian AND incapable of being used as a firearm
d. Licensed collectibles
185. A weapon of antiquarian value is exempt only if it:
a. Is more than 100 years old
b. Is certified by museum
c. Cannot be used as a firearm even with repair
d. Is registered
186. A firearm in disrepair but capable of being repaired and used:
a. Is exempt
b. Is conditionally exempt
c. Is NOT exempt under Section 45(c)
d. Requires special licence
187. The intention behind Section 45(c) is to:
a. Promote collectors
b. Encourage museums
c. Exclude harmless, non-functional weapons from regulation
d. Reduce licensing burden
188. Clause (d) exempts possession of:
a. Firearms
b. Ammunition
c. Minor parts of arms or ammunition
d. Spare magazines
189. The exemption under Section 45(d) applies only when minor parts are:
a. Licensed
b. Imported legally
c. Not intended to be used with complementary parts
d. Declared to police
190. Possession of a minor part becomes punishable if:
a. It is old
b. It is imported
c. It is intended to be assembled with other parts to form a weapon
d. It is unregistered
191. Section 45(d) aims to prevent:
a. Illegal import
b. Smuggling
c. Circumvention of the Act through piecemeal possession
d. Over-criminalisation
192. Which of the following best describes Section 45?
a. Penal provision
b. Procedural safeguard
c. Statutory exemption clause
d. Rule-making provision
193. Section 45 overrides which of the following?
a. CrPC
b. IPC
c. Arms Rules
d. The Arms Act itself
194. Section 46 of the Arms Act, 1959 deals with:
a. Power to exempt
b. Rule-making power
c. Repeal and saving of earlier law
d. Delegation of powers
195. Which Act is expressly repealed by Section 46(1)?
a. Arms Act, 1959
b. Arms Rules, 1962
c. Indian Arms Act, 1878
d. Defence of India Act, 1915
196. Section 46(2) begins with which phrase?
a. Subject to provisions of this Act
b. Notwithstanding anything contained elsewhere
c. Notwithstanding the repeal of the Indian Arms Act, 1878
d. Save as otherwise provided
197. Section 46(2) operates as a:
a. Penal clause
b. Delegation clause
c. Saving clause
d. Exemption clause
198. Which provisions are expressly preserved while applying Section 46(2)?
a. Sections 5 and 25 of Arms Act
b. Sections 24 and 25 of CrPC
c. Sections 6 and 24 of the General Clauses Act, 1897
d. Section 300 CrPC
199. Licences granted under the Indian Arms Act, 1878 which were in force immediately before commencement of the 1959 Act shall:
a. Automatically lapse
b. Require fresh application
c. Continue in force
d. Be valid for life
200. Such licences continue in force for:
a. One year from commencement
b. Five years from commencement
c. The unexpired portion of the original period
d. A period prescribed by rules
201. Continuation of licences under Section 46(2) is subject to:
a. State Government approval
b. Payment of fresh fee
c. They not being sooner revoked
d. Renewal under new Act
202. If a licence under the 1878 Act had already expired before commencement of the 1959 Act:
a. It revives automatically
b. It continues for full term
c. It does NOT get revived
d. It converts into new licence